Exploratory Questions For Chris Date #2

I asked some other exploratory questions here, previously.

1) Do unbelievers suffer in the Lake of Fire?
2) If so, are they then annihilated by or after this experience?
3) Why are they thus annihilated?
4) What is the significance of salt in Old Testament sacrifices, and what is the relevance to being “salted with fire” in Mark 9:49?
5) Do you believe that the Reformed doctrine of the immortality of man is of Greek origin?
6) What is death, per your position?
7) What sense does “eternal punishment” have when without respect to an object of that punishment?
8 ) Is wrath an attribute of God?
9) Do you believe in the doctrine of Divine Simplicity?
10) If so, is it not true that God’s wrath is infinite?

Again, if time constraints are at issue, I’d rather he spend the time in preparation if there is a choice between the two – however, it might also be valuable for him to see where I’m going to be going. There are many, many issues under consideration from theology proper and the other branches of systematic, obviously, but I’m trying to give a broad scope overview.


3 Comments

Chris Date

1) The lake of fire is a symbol not intended to be taken literally, but yes, risen unbelievers will suffer.
2) They will suffer as part of the process by which they are annihilated.
3) Because the punishment is not primarily the suffering, but the lifelessness which results from the execution process.
4) I don’t have an answer to this question yet. Suffice it to say, I part ways with those who think Mark 9:49 means the lives of the risen wicked will be preserved forever in hell.
5) That question could be taken a number of different ways. I think that the belief that after resurrection the souls and risen bodies of the wicked will live forever in hell was probably the result of 2nd century Greeks reading the Bible through their Greek glasses, so to speak.
6) The end or lack of life. When the living are spoken of as dead, it’s used proleptically–like when we say things like, “You’re so dead”–or metaphorically–the end or lack of physical life used as a metaphor to refer to the end or lack of spiritual life.
7) I’m not sure what you mean, but I’m guessing what you mean is, how can punishment be eternal if at any point in eternity there is no then-present referent. And my answer is, that’s how language is naturally used, both in the original language of the New Testament, as well as in English. The duration of a verb’s outcome does not always require that the object of the verb exist for said duration.
8-10) These are areas of theology I haven’t studied enough to give you a satisfactorily meaningful answer at this point, I suspect.

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